Sort of a "this is a football" moment....I'm entirely self taught on amp building. Well not self taught, but self motivated. I've learned a ton from online sources, amp books, and you fine people here. No EE training. Just a guitar loving tinkerer. I've built and modded enough to understand the main difference between cathode biased and fixed bias, and some of the general tonal differences associated with those. I understand the concept of a cathode resistor vs grounded cathode and where the "negative" voltage is applied in each scenario.
I know that it's often said that cathode biased amps "don't need rebiasing" when swapping tubes. What I do not understand is WHY. I know from experience that in fixed biased setups that different tubes can pull different amounts of current, thus requiring the rebias. Why do they NOT do that in a cathode biased scenario? Or is that just a wives tale and they actually do? I assume the concept is true, but I just don't understand why the positive voltage on the cathode resistor is so effective at self biasing. I'm more so asking in the concept of power tubes. I understand the majority of preamp tubes are self biased.
Not looking for a lengthy explanation if this has already been covered somewhere else. Happy to read for myself if someone just knows where to point me. I did try the search function FWIW, although maybe I could have been more diligent. Thanks!